A short quiz reviewing regulatory and quality terms and recently published cases. Pick an answer to see the correct answer, the explanation, and a link to the source. No leaderboard — your record is stored only in this browser, and Gurumi grows with it. Every answer and explanation can be checked against GRM's public sources.
This week's quiz
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Q1AdvancedWeekly brief
At the Richmond VA Medical Center, FDA identified one specific operation as compromising first-air protection. Which was it?
Observation 1 states that the position of the operator's hands obstructed the first air between the HEPA filter face and the critical work surface. Under the first-air concept in EU GMP Annex 1, unobstructed filtered air must provide protection before the air reaches the product.
At the Richmond VA Medical Center, under which condition were smoke studies stated not to have been performed?
The observation states that smoke studies were not performed under dynamic conditions. EU GMP Annex 1 §4.15 requires airflow pattern studies to be performed both at rest and in operation, simulating operator interventions, with the recordings retained — which connects the requirement directly to this case.
At VA San Diego Healthcare Systems, beta-lactam and non-beta-lactam sterile products were produced in the same ISO 5 hood. Which combination of controls addresses that finding most directly?
The observation states that beta-lactam products were produced in the same ISO 5 hood without adequate segregation, separation and cleaning of work surfaces, equipment and personnel. It connects to 21 CFR 211.42 and to cross-contamination controls.
Brown staining was found on an ISO 5 HEPA filter at VA San Diego. What did the firm fail to establish?
The observation states that the source of the unexplained brown staining was never identified, and that the firm did not establish whether it affected filter integrity, air quality or the ISO 5 aseptic conditions.
Recurring mammalian hair particulate investigations at Catalent Indiana connect most directly to which requirement of 21 CFR 211.192?
The observation states that batch-level investigations of recurring particulate events were not completed in a timely way, that root cause and correction were not demonstrated, and that investigation records did not always include the conclusions and follow-up. The clause cited for that observation is 21 CFR 211.192.
At Catalent Indiana, the qualification of the visual inspection method was found deficient in which three key respects?
The observation states that the visual inspection method was applied without adequate qualification of its inspection sensitivity, its ability to detect defects, and its comparability with other methods.
In the Class II recall of four CareFusion products including BD ChloraPrep Clear, what directly weakened the assurance of sterility?
The recall states that wrinkling in the paper lidding could compromise the seal area, so sterility could not be assured. It shows why control of the sealing process and of container closure integrity has to hold across the product lifecycle.
At QuVa Pharma, procedures to prevent microbial contamination of sterile drug products were not established or followed. Which US CGMP clause does that connect to directly?
The central observation is that procedures designed to prevent microbial contamination of sterile drug products were not established, written and followed. That maps directly onto the procedural requirement of 21 CFR 211.113(b) and its validation of aseptic and sterilisation processes.
At Mixlab WI, which operator behaviour in the non-sterile compounding area was cited against 21 CFR 211.28?
The observation ties the operators' passage through the compounding area in breach of the gowning procedure to 21 CFR 211.28. The other options are also real observations from the same inspection, but they concern area segregation, batch records and the stability programme respectively.
The Shanghai Ethypharm GMP inspection cited two control items together. Which pair?
The inspection cites inadequate temperature and humidity monitoring in the warehouse and inadequate verification of hold time after cleaning of manufacturing equipment. The two items belong to storage condition control and to the time variables of cleaning validation.
In the GMP inspection of Seoul National University Hospital, which matter was classified as a major finding?
The inspection separates out, as a major finding, the failure to follow the standard governing growth promotion testing together with the omission of some test items in media quality control. Environmental monitoring criteria and transfer tubing cleaning validation are recorded in the same inspection as other findings.
At the Pharmaneek non-sterile manufacturing site, which control was stated to be deficient when handling hazardous drugs?
The observation states that measures to prevent cross-contamination — segregation, work surfaces, equipment and personnel — were inadequate when hazardous drugs were handled.
Which is the most accurate definition of first air?
First air is filtered air that reaches exposed product and product contact surfaces without being interrupted. When a hand or a tool comes between the HEPA face and the critical point, that protection is weakened.
Which activity is broader than total particle classification and assesses a cleanroom's fitness for intended use, covering HEPA integrity, airflow, pressure differentials and microbiology?
EU GMP Annex 1 defines cleanroom classification as an assessment against total particle concentration, and distinguishes cleanroom qualification as the wider process that assesses fitness for intended use, covering HEPA, airflow, pressure differentials and microbiology.
PUPSIT is the pre-use, post-sterilisation integrity test. It confirms, before filtration actually begins, that no damage or loss of integrity arose during preparation, sterilisation and installation of the filter.
Which statement correctly distinguishes a backup from an archive?
A backup is a copy of current data, metadata and configuration held for recovery from disaster or failure. An archive is the long-term retention of completed data and metadata so that the activity can be reconstructed.
Which of the following is the best example of metadata?
Sample ID, method version, time of creation, analyst, processing history and audit trail are the metadata that give a result its structure, relationships, context and meaning. Without metadata, a result value alone makes the activity hard to understand or reconstruct fully.
Which of the following is the best example of dynamic data?
Dynamic data allow the user to interact with the content of the record — querying, trending, reprocessing, expanding. A chromatography electronic raw file is the classic dynamic record, whereas a plain PDF or a printout is a static record.
In verifying a data migration, what must be confirmed as preserved beyond the matching of values?
A migration must be verified not only for values but for whether the content and its meaning, its relationships, the metadata and audit trail, and critical dynamic functionality are retained.
What does the ALCOA principle of "attributable" require?
Attributable is the principle that it must be possible to identify the individual or system that created, changed or deleted the data, and the point in time at which they did so.
What should a risk-based audit trail review be looking for?
An audit trail review evaluates the events that bear on data reliability — GMP-relevant creation, change and deletion, reprocessing, configuration changes — together with who did them, when, and why.
What is the key element to confirm before closing a CAPA?
A CAPA becomes a closed-loop process only when actions matched to the root cause have been implemented and their effectiveness confirmed, demonstrating that the risk of recurrence or occurrence is genuinely controlled.
Which statement correctly distinguishes OOS from OOT?
An OOS result is one that falls outside an established specification or acceptance criterion. An OOT result may still be within specification, but departs unusually from the historical or expected trend.
Which best characterises a contamination control strategy (CCS)?
A CCS is an integrated strategy that defines the sources of contamination and the critical control points across the whole facility, assesses the collective effectiveness of all controls and monitoring, and is continuously reviewed and improved.
Which activity continues to evaluate process data and trends during commercial production to confirm that the process remains in a state of control?
Continued process verification is the lifecycle activity that keeps evaluating commercial production data, variability and trends after process performance qualification, to confirm the process remains in its validated state of control.
EU GMP Annex 1 holds that sterility cannot be assured by monitoring or testing alone. Which reasoning fits that position best?
Annex 1 §2.2 stresses the order — design of facilities, equipment and processes, then well-designed procedures, then monitoring — and explains that sterility cannot be assured by monitoring or testing alone.
Under ICH Q9(R1), which three factors are considered together when setting the level of formality in quality risk management?
ICH Q9(R1) §5.1 explains that the rigour and formality of risk management should be commensurate with the knowledge available, together with the degree of uncertainty, the importance of the decision, and the complexity of the problem.
How does ICH Q9(R1) propose to reduce subjectivity in quality risk management?
ICH Q9(R1) §5.3 asks that subjectivity be controlled by addressing bias and assumptions, using quality risk management tools correctly, and making maximum use of relevant data and sources of knowledge.
How does ICH Q9(R1) describe the role of detection controls?
ICH Q9(R1) explains that some tools may include detectability in risk estimation, and that detection controls can form part of a control strategy that reduces the probability of harm. They do not, however, substitute for severity or for preventive controls.
Under the principle of EU GMP Annex 11, what is the baseline expectation for computerised systems?
The principle of EU GMP Annex 11 states that the application should be validated and the IT infrastructure qualified. The extent of validation and of data integrity controls follows from a lifecycle risk assessment.
Which combination of items best fits the periodic evaluation required by EU GMP Annex 11?
Annex 11 §11 asks that systems be evaluated to confirm they remain in a valid state and compliant with GMP, covering functionality, deviations, incidents and problems, upgrades, performance, reliability, security and validation status.
Under EU GMP Annex 15, which statement about the relationship between the URS and the qualification stages is correct?
Annex 15 sets the URS as the reference point for the validation lifecycle, has DQ confirm that the design complies with the URS, and then has the relevant requirements tested through the appropriate IQ, OQ and PQ stages.
Under EU GMP Annex 1, which lifecycle factor must be included in the validation of container closure integrity?
EU GMP Annex 1 §8.25 requires validation to consider the effect that transport and shipping requirements may have on container closure integrity, for example depressurisation or extreme temperature.
In Observation 1 of the 483 issued by FDA to Hillyard GMP, which written procedure was found not to have been properly followed?
Observation 1 states that the documented procedure for supplier qualification and approval (SOP QA200-07.02 Vendor Audits) was not properly followed. Specifically, documentation audits of the suppliers of raw materials and components used in drug manufacture had not been carried out.
The stated reason for recall is that an individual unspecified related substance exceeded its limit during post-marketing stability testing. The recall is not mandatory: it is a voluntary recall by the business operator.
What administrative action did Human Bio receive after its product Purecl Solution failed the microbial limit test?
Surveillance sampling and testing of marketed product found a total aerobic microbial count of 97,000, failing the microbial limit test. Manufacturing of that product was accordingly suspended for three months, from 30 July 2026 to 29 October 2026.
Why did Health Canada recall the Supernova and Supreme Nicotine Film and Pouches products?
The stated reason for recall is that it was an unauthorized product. The recall is classified Type II, and the product is a nicotine film presentation at 4 mg.
In the Warning Letter issued by FDA to Island Kinetics, Inc. d.b.a. CoValence Laboratories, what was found not to have been properly established?
The finding in this Warning Letter is the failure to establish written production and process control procedures designed to assure the identity, strength, quality and purity that the drug products manufactured purport to possess (21 CFR 211.100(a)).
In the follow-up GMP inspection of RECKITT BENCKISER HEALTHCARE INTERNATIONAL LIMITED, which standard did MFDS require to be clarified under facilities and equipment?
The finding from this inspection sits under facilities and equipment, other, item 9 of the annexed table, and required the criteria for mask wearing in exposed manufacturing operations and the criteria for operator hygiene control to be made explicit.
Korea Pharma received an administrative action for failing to follow its own standards. What specifically was the breach?
The ground for the action is that, under the change control rule in the firm's own standard (document number HS-G-04D01), a change request including the rationale and the necessary information should have been raised and submitted when a method or procedure was changed, and this was not done. The change concerned the assay method for glycyrrhizic acid in liquorice.
In the outcome of the July 2026 meeting of the Committee for Medicinal Products for Human Use (CHMP) published by EMA, how many new medicines were recommended for approval?
The published outcome of the CHMP meeting held from 20 to 23 July 2026 states that 12 new medicines received a positive opinion recommending approval.
Alpha Pharm omitted some test items for 10 raw materials and issued false certificates of analysis. What action did MFDS take?
MFDS established that Alpha Pharm had repeatedly omitted some tests for 10 raw materials, including hydroxypropyl cellulose, and had drawn up false certificates of analysis. The resulting action was cancellation of the GMP conformity determination for oral solid dosage forms.
For Daeil Pharmaceutical's quasi-drug Clean Waterproof Band (single use), which records did MFDS find had not been prepared?
Daeil Pharmaceutical manufactured and sold the product without preparing any manufacturing control record or quality control record for each batch, and received a three-month suspension of manufacturing for that product.
In the FDA inspection of the contract testing laboratory C.A.T. Gmbh and Co. KG, what was cited in relation to chromatographic testing?
The observation cited that, in residual solvent and optical purity testing of numerous lots of drug substance, system suitability was not established by multiple consecutive injections of an appropriate standard solution. It also cited, on the basis of USP <621>, the failure to inject the standard during the run and after the final sample injection to confirm that the system remained valid to the end.
What action did MFDS take against Barun Herbal Pharmaceutical's Barun Injinho for failing the ash and acid-insoluble ash quality tests?
On the ground of the failing ash and acid-insoluble ash quality tests, MFDS suspended manufacturing of Barun Injinho for three months, running from 19 August 2026 to 18 November 2026.
What is qualification intended to demonstrate in GMP?
Qualification is the act of demonstrating and documenting that premises, systems and equipment are correctly installed, work properly, and produce the expected results. Cleaning validation, process validation and analytical procedure validation are separate activities directed at cleaning procedures, manufacturing processes and test methods respectively.
An identification test confirms whether the principal or a specified component of a sample is the intended substance. The types and amounts of impurities are determined by a purity test, the amount of analyte by an assay, and change in quality with time and temperature by stability testing.
In the FDA inspection of the Alvotech Hf site in Iceland, on what basis was aseptic process validation for a product purporting to be sterile found inadequate?
The airflow visualisation study on the aseptic filling line showed that, during the intervention to introduce an unopened stopper bag, a void of stagnant air formed above the bag so that first air did not reach it, and FDA cited this as a defect in aseptic process validation. The other three are also observations issued in the same inspection, but they concern quality unit oversight, laboratory controls and deviation investigation respectively.
MFDS confirmed that Alpha Pharm had failed to follow its own standards and had falsified quality control records. What action followed?
Failure to follow its own standards, failure to implement administrative instructions, inadequate testing and inspection equipment, falsification of quality control records and failure to prepare manufacturing records were established together, and led to suspension of all manufacturing for three months and seven days (17 August 2026 to 23 November 2026) together with suspension of manufacturing of individual products. Where the truthfulness of records had broken down, the action stopped manufacture itself rather than the sales stage.
Which statement about an airflow visualisation study (smoke study) in an aseptic manufacturing area is correct?
An airflow visualisation study, or smoke study, makes airflow visible using smoke so that it can be confirmed that contamination does not travel into the critical zone. The others describe environmental monitoring, aseptic process simulation (media fill), and unidirectional airflow respectively.
Which statement about an impurity in pharmaceutical quality control is correct?
An impurity is any component of a drug substance or drug product that is not the intended active ingredient or excipient. The others describe the impurity profile, the purity test, and cross-contamination respectively.
Of the 21 EU GMP deficiencies found by the Belgian regulator at the Chinese API site Lianyungang Guike Pharmaceutical, only one was classified critical. Which?
The single deficiency classified critical among the 21 was inadequate management of contamination and cross-contamination risk on shared equipment: the risk assessment and contamination control strategy for Workshop 2 and the weighing area were neither robust nor specific enough, and were not effectively implemented. The other three were classified major in the same inspection.
Why did Hana Pharm conduct a business operator recall of Paloxi Injection (palonosetron hydrochloride)?
The ground for recall is a failing assay result in post-marketing stability testing, and the recall was ordered on 19 August 2026. The other three are also genuine recall reasons published for other products in the same week, but they are not the reason for this one.
Which statement about a restricted access barrier system (RABS) used in aseptic manufacturing is correct?
A restricted access barrier system (RABS) is a barrier system that separates a Grade A interior from the surrounding cleanroom with rigid walls and integral gloves. The others describe an isolator, a cleanroom and an airlock respectively.
Which statement about a business operator recall under the Korean pharmaceutical recall system is correct?
A business operator recall is one in which the marketing authorisation holder, importer or similar party, on becoming aware of a safety or efficacy problem, withdraws distributed product on its own initiative rather than waiting for an order from the authorities. The others describe quarantine, the field alert report (FAR) and complaint handling respectively.
In the Warning Letter to R3 Medical Companies, on what basis did FDA hold that sterility test results could not be relied on as evidence of sterility?
FDA cited that freezing and thawing samples before the sterility test can destroy or injure microorganisms present in the sample, so contamination present before freezing may not be reliably detected (21 CFR 211.160(b)). The other three are also genuine findings in the same Warning Letter, but they concern aseptic process validation, expiry dating and quality unit documentation respectively.
MFDS confirmed that TDS Pharm had not prepared its manufacturing instruction and record concurrently. What action followed?
The action is a penalty surcharge of 19,350,000 won in lieu of a 15-day suspension of manufacturing for the dosage form concerned. The surcharge was calculated by taking the 12 products with production output in FY25, out of the 14 products in that dosage form (cataplasms), and multiplying the daily surcharge for suspension by 15 days, then adding the results.
Which statement about cleaning validation is correct?
Cleaning validation is documented evidence that an approved cleaning procedure renders equipment suitable for processing medicinal products (EU GMP Annex 15). The others describe process validation, revalidation and equipment qualification respectively.
Which statement about the data integrity principle of "contemporaneous" is correct?
Contemporaneous is the attribute that data are recorded at the very moment the work or observation is performed, which prevents later transcription from memory or from informal notes (PIC/S PI 041-1 §7.4). The others describe attributable, legible and accurate respectively.